1. Bed of orthodontic tooth movement is
2. For class II div 1 malocclusion of 14 years old boy, which analysis is indicated to detect the tooth extraction
3. The goals of treatment for class III problems in adolescents is to establish the correct buccal segment occlusion and
4. X-occlusion is commonly found among:
5. Snort test is used to evaluate:
6. W arch is used for treatment of:
7. Extrusive movements ideally would produce no areas of compression within PDL, but will produce
8. Habitual grinding of teeth in day time referred to as
9. Combined orthodontic and orthognathic surgical treatments primarily address
10. Appliance of choice in cases with anteroposterior maxillary deficiency is
11. Which cephalometric point represents centre of rams of mandible
12. Prior to direct bonding, __________ is used as an etching agent. Prior to placing bands, _______________is used as an etching agent.
13. Myofunctional appliances are highly effective in Class II malocclusion with
14. The ideal patient for rapid palatal expansion should have all characteristics except
15. Maximum friction is seen in which orthodontic wire:
16. Which is the first titanium alloy introduced into contemporary orthodontics
17. The lowest incidence of cleft palate is seen in which of the following:
18. Arrowhead clasp is also called:
19. Degree of conversion for orthodontic bonding resin is in the range of
20. Pendulum appliance is used for:
21. A contraindication for serial extraction is
22. Mild force during orthodontic tooth movement produces
23. Which of the following is the normal relationship of the primary molars in the deciduous dentition?
24. Anthropometry is
25. Mandibular anterior crowding occurs in normal young adults as a result of
26. Orthodontic headgear can be used for all of the following EXCEPT
27. Which malocclusion does not require retention after treatment?
28. Which of the following teeth has maximum sensory innervations:
29. Which of the following problem may be ignored during age of 8- 10 yrs
30. Key ridge is present in:
31. Which of the following are potentially detrimental conditions that can occur during use of orthodontic appliances?
32. The rationale for retention in orthodontics (accomplished with fixed or removable retainers) is to:
33. When comparing stainless steel versus nickel titanium in orthodontic wires, stainless steel has a __________ modulus of elasticity. and __________ resilience.
34. Bonded retainers are popular in which area of dentition
35. Which one of the following is most common iatrogenic effect of acid etching on enamel?
36. The positioning of tongue in infantile swallowing is
37. Supernumerary teeth can be differentiated from supplementary teeth in a way that:
38. Expansion in Frankel appliance is:
39. Post-orthodontic circumferential supra crestal fibrotomy is indicated most for:
40. A strong buttress of bone extending from the zygoma to the alveolar process in the region of the maxillary first molar is called
41. Concept of lingual orthodontic appliance was introduced by
42. Vital staining was introduced by
43. Which of the following orthodontic wire has no superelastic property
44. A lingually erupting maxillary lateral incisor
45. What is seen when a wire is bent below its elastic limit and is released:
46. Long term stability of the orthodontic correction of an anterior open bite is better
47. Protraction face mask is used for correction of:
48. Condition of mouth breathing usually shows
49. Advantage of metal modified GIC over conventional GIC is
50. Which of the following is a mixed functional appliance:
51. Cobalt-Chromium alloy (elgiloy) is not available in which of the following tempers
52. Which of the following wires can't be soldered and welded?
53. Which of the following cements provides maximum resistance to enamel decalcification, when used with molar bands:
54. Most common removable retainer used in orthodontics:
55. Which is purely tooth borne appliance:
56. Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently after orthodontic correction due to
57. The first evidence of cartilage getting converted to bone in craniofacial skeleton occur during
58. Lip bumper is used for:
59. Which of the following is NOT a transient self-correcting malocclusion?
60. If anterior crossbite is not corrected with tongue blade, then the appliance indicated is:
61. Monocrystaline and polycrystalline are type of
62. Cutting edge of orthodontic instruments is made up of:
63. All of the following are extra oral components of the headgear except:
64. Supracrestal fibrotomy is done following correction of:
65. The displacement of a tooth from the socket in the direction of eruption is referred to as:
66. In Dewers method of serial extraction procedure, the second step involved is to
67. All of the following are cranial base bones except:
68. The flat bones of the skull and part of the clavicle are formed by:
69. Which of the following orthodontic wire can be Heat Treated:
70. Magnets are used in orthodontic practice for various purposes; the magnetic force follows the:
71. In the edge centroid relationship:
72. In orthognathic surgery, dental compensations to skeletal malocclusions are removed:
73. A primary second molar becomes ankylosed most commonly
74. Cold bend test is used to measure
75. The green elgiloy wire is
76. Tooth loss that causes the patient to bite in an abnormal relation of maxilla to mandible, in order to obtain better function during mastication is termed
77. The permanent mandibular canines erupt in what direction relative to the primary mandibular canines?
78. Pendulum appliance is used to:
79. After 6 years of age, the lengthening of mandible occurs mainly
80. Second molars that get locked under the distal cusps of first molars during eruption are best
81. The treatment of choice for a first molar erupting ectopically towards the mesial in an intact arch without causing excessive resorption of the primary molar roots is
82. A 5 year and 4 months old child has a retrusive chin with undue small mandible, reduced lower facial height, on intraoral examination, full cusp distal step molar relation is seen. The cephalometric parameters reveal a normal SNA but a reduced SNB. What should be the line of treatment
83. A child with 5year 4 months of age presents with narrow maxilla, normal SNA, reduced SNB and distal step relationship of deciduous molar, treatment of choice is?
84. In normal growing child weight on 1st birthday expected as compared to birth weight is ?
85. In apical root fracture of tooth, the orthodontic force should not be applied until
86. The lag phase of tooth movement usually lasts for?
87. A force maintained at some appreciable fraction of the original from one patient visit to the next is
88. Maximum injury to protective layer of tooth occurs during
89. In edgewise technique, first order bends are?
90. 90 degree activation of pendulum appliance creates how much distal force on molars:
91. During Orthodontic Bonding, etching removes how much enamel
92. Mode of inheritance of cleft lip n palate is
93. The repair of cleft patate is primarily done for:
94. Alveolar bone grafting in cleft patient is best done
95. The ratio of skeletal: Dental expansion obtained finally after Rapid palatal expansion is
96. In a bonded palatal expansion (Hyrax) appliance the wire framework is made of:
97. What is the cause of relapse after derotation treatment?
98. What should be used initially for removing adhesive after debonding
99. Flutes present in microimplant helps in?
100. Miniscrew gets primary retention from