1. Micro abrasion using modified Croll technique utilizes:
2. Which of the following materials could be used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical lesion?
3. A radiopaque area is observed in the dentin underlying a three month old Class II amalgam restoration. Which of the following bases was used in the restoration
4. A tooth which has been acid etched gets contaminated by hand piece oil What should be done:
5. True about inflammation confined to pulp:
6. To avoid pulpal irritation below any restorative material, the minimum thickness of the dentine should be
7. As caries progresses from enamel to dentin and toward the pulp interproximally, the radiographic appearance resembles which of the following?
8. Choose the incorrect statement about Class V amalgam restorations.
9. How should the pulp be protected in deeply carious cavity
10. Enameloplasty is indicated in carious tooth when caries extend to a depth of:
11. A patient reported back with moderate to severe pain 4 weeks after amalgam restoration of a large MOD cavity having deep proximal boxes. The most likely reason for pain is
12. A casting may fail to seat on the prepared tooth due to all of the following factors except _____.
13. With regard to the mercury controversy related to the use of amalgam restorations, which statement is incorrect?
14. When amalgam is polished, the metal crystals at the surface get flattened. The layer is called
15. A composite restoration is to be done in case of a bleached tooth. Maximum bond strength will be achieved when composite is done after:
16. Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of
17. The main objective of cavity preparation is to
18. When removing caries, which of the following layers of dentin are affected, but not infected, and therefore do not need to be removed?
19. Which of the following materials has the highest linear coefficient of expansion?
20. All of the following reasons are likely to indicate the need for restoration of a cervical notch except _____.
21. Ultra high speed rotary instruments should not be used
22. The reason to invert a rubber dam is _____.
23. Why is etchant preferred as a gel instead of solution
24. Which of the following is not true regarding the use of twist drills?
25. Common signs of trauma from occlusion include
26. A patient comes in claiming that their holistic: doctor told him that he has an allergy to mercury and needs only white fillings. Your best response is:
27. All Class III lesions should be filled with composite resin, because they are esthetically important.
28. Ultraviolet light-curing resin systems are superior to visible lightcuring resin systems because a greater depth of resin can be cured by UV light.
29. Etching with 37% orthophosphoric acid typically creates a zone of etched enamel rods for about 15-25 micrometer. What is the depth of enamel dissolved?
30. In class II cavity preparation the axial depth of gingival floor should be a minimum of:
31. Which of the following statements regarding caries risk assessment is correct?
32. Which of the following statements about indirect pulp caps is false?
33. Diamonds remove tooth structure more efficiently than steel burs, but they leave undesirably rough surfaces and irregular cavosurface finish lines.
34. Which of the following statements is true regarding the choice between doing a composite or amalgam restoration?
35. A major difference between total-etch and selfetching primer dentin bonding systems include all of the following except _____.
36. For a dental hand instrument with a formula of 10-8.5-8, the number 10 refers to _____.
37. A patient walks into your office for an emergency visit. He asks the receptionist for a cold glass of water and seems to be tilting his head sideways as to hold the water on one side of his mouth. Immediately, you suspect which reason for his visit?
38. Which of the following is not true when fixing the matrix band for filling a Class 2 cavity with amalgam? The matrix band should
39. ____ is degraded by Streptococcus mutans into ____ and ___ , thereby causing caries initiation and progression.
40. The maximum chances of pulpal necrosis are seen in:
41. What should be the shape of the axial wall of a Class 5 cavity in a maxillary bicuspid, when seen in a transverse section?
42. Which of the following microorganisms is associated with dental caries
43. The most frequently quoted disadvantage of using the rubber dam is
44. Alternating rotational technique uses which blank design
45. When restoring a tooth with composite resins, the enamel margins are bevelled in order to
46. A dentin bonding agent has two ends: hydrophilic and hydrophobic. The hydrophobic end binds to:
47. All of the following statements about slot retained complex amalgams are true except _____.
48. When comparing pin retention with slot retention for a complex amalgam restoration, which of the following statements is false?
49. A Class V buccal cavity is to be prepared on a mandibular first premolar under a Rubber dam clamped on the tooth with a No.212 clamp. The hole for the first Premolar should be punched
50. While using Kalzinol as a temporary cement, what should be the thickness of material
51. Micro abrasion is done using:
52. ND: YAG laser wavelength
53. For a gold casting alloy, which of the following is added primarily to act as a scavenger for oxygen during the casting process?
54. Beveling the gingival cavosurface margin of the proximal box of a Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth:
55. When condensing gold foil, stepping of the condenser
56. Sharp pain in tooth is mediated by:
57. A 16 year old boy reports with a history of traumatic injury 3 hours back leading to the avulsion of the tipper permanent incisor. The tooth is present with the patient. Which of the following should be the line of treatment
58. Due to slowly advancing caries involving dentin, which of the following type of dentin may form in response
59. Extension for prevention is directly related to the
60. Retentive locks in the proximal box for a Class II amalgam preparation should be:
61. A cold test reveals a lingering pain. You ask the patient to raise her hand until the pain subsides. The patient raises her hand for about 8 seconds. What does this data suggest?
62. The pupal response to glass ionomer cement is similar to that for
63. Which of the following is least associated with the short-term strength of a material
64. The last step in cavity preparation is
65. Following restoration with gold, the tooth was sensitive to pressure, cold and heat, the best course of action is to
66. Triturating a dental amalgam will _____.
67. Which of the following is true regarding fluoride release from GIC:
68. Coves are given in:
69. Which of the following is not a risk when using air as a coolant cutting with high speeds
70. Restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results in all of the following except _____.
71. Second digit in 4-digit instrument formula indicates
72. The shank of a dental hand cutting instrument joints the blade to the
73. In a class I cavity for amalgam, the mesial and distal walls show slight divergence towards the occlusal surface. This is done to:
74. Retention of an inlay is influenced primarily by:
75. The setting reaction of dental amalgam proceeds primarily by _____.
76. All of the following statements are true concerning posterior composite restorations EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
77. Recognition of wall convergence angles in crown preparation will determine if undercuts are produced when taper is too small and if retention is undermined when taper is too large. What degree of wall convergence during crown preparation will give the prosthesis optimal retention?
78. Distance of the blade from the shank to have anti-rotational design of instrument should be
79. The ideal amount of time from placing an indirect pulp cap until reopening the tooth to remove the remaining decay is:
80. All of the following precautions should be taken when making an acrylic resin Temporary restoration for an MOD onlay preparation, except
81. What are the structural components of composite?
82. 50% sulfuric acid is useful for
83. Which one of the following acids is generally recommended for etching tooth structure?
84. Etchant acts on mostly which part of enamel rods
85. Which type of corrosion is not seen in High Copper Amalgam,
86. Which of the following is not one of the four zones in four-handed dentistry:
87. Retention form for a Class II amalgam preparation is ensured by
88. Preventive measures to avoid cracked teeth, include all of the following, except
89. Which of the following statements is not true regarding bonding systems?
90. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of a split tooth?
91. Affected dentin differs from infected dentin in that, it has
92. Which zone in dentinal caries is associated with degeneration in inter tubular dentin and deposition of prism like structures in dentin tubules
93. The primary contraindication(s) for the use of a composite restoration is (are) _____.
94. When preparing a Class II cavity for amalgam, the proximal portion should
95. Acute dental caries differs from chronic dental caries, in that, there is
96. In comparison to amalgam restorations, composite restorations are _____.
97. A finishing bur has how many blades compared to a cutting bur?
98. Smooth surface caries refers to _____.
99. When preparing a Class III or IV composite tooth preparation, which of the following is false regarding placement of retention form?
100. What is run out of a bur